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If a dividend is paid without company tax having been paid already, would the recipient be able to declare the income and if not in a high enough tax bracket still pay no tax. Or if in the lowest bracket only pay 15% at most.
Talking about modest returns here. Would this not be the same result as having franking credits refunded?
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I just read the answer to your question of the week and noted the following:
“A similar situation applies where a person has never been ‘gainfully employed’, for example, for a person who has only ever been a passive investor, superannuation benefits could not be paid until 65. The reason is that the person would not be able to retire from that activity under the superannuation legislation. ”
My question relates to the word “never”. I was an employee until approx 15yrs ago and have since been an investor (current age 61).
So am I eligible to obtain my superannuation benefits now as I was previously employed but it was a long time ago?
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I’m about to sell a property in my SMSF I hope to net about $750,000
The problem is where to put that money to work?
I like shares but my wife is very averse.
If we were to put money into shares I don’t see anything wrong with putting the money in a blue chip like CBA.
Maybe the there’s better banks to buy or it’s too early to say what the Royal Commission, lending and interest rate increases or loan defaults will do to the SP when the interest rates start to go up?
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What is your opinion on the Hearts and Mind Investment IPO? Would it be a good long term growth investment?
On this very volatile market, should young adults still have their super on high growth/growth portfolio?
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I don’t hold any Reject Shop shares but TRS has today fallen 40% odd.
Not sure why such a huge fall on a revised profit or earnings forecast? Do you have any views on this? Is it overdone and a buying opportunity for a potential recovery by maybe 10/15% short term, or is it dog with fleas and best left alone?
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Could you please explain “washing” ? Is buying a parcel of shares at a cheap price and selling a parcel of the same shares , bought previously at an expensive price, in order to lower your overall average buy price, considered washing?
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